A biblical connundrum sorted

For those of you who read the Bible, there is a well known passage that gets people tied up in knots. It occurs at John 1:1 (which is expressed with slight variations depending on the version you have).
Using the King James version (which is printed variously) it is possible to resolve easily.
First, let's read the contents of verse 1:
In the beginning was the Word and the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
This verse varies in different versions. In some it is promoting the church's trinitarian doctrine. In others it is translated differently, however the essential elements are present in practically every case. This version has long been wrongly used to support the trinitarian concept of God. The verse just quoted is an example of it.

So how can we sort out the truth from the dogma?

It isn't very hard if you know one more thing. Simply put, "the Bible interprets itself". I'm not kidding here. So here is where some demand proof of what to many is a surprising statement.

The answer is found in verse 18 of the same chapter. In the original english:"No man has seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the father, he hath declared him."

Having stated that, you probably want an explanation.
All you need is to refer back to the opening statement and ask one simple question. "How many people have seen Jesus?". The answer is obvious isn't it? A great many saw him from the time he was born until he ascended to heaven. Therefore, Jesus could not possibly be part of a trinitarian arrangement or a 3 in one God!
Now do you see how the Bible works?